ISSA practice test, with every option explained

A — Not this one. Dimming the lights removes visual input that a client with reduced foot sensation relies on, which raises fall risk.

B — Not this one. With neuropathy, foot sensation is already reduced, and socks on a smooth floor add slip risk; supportive shoes are safer.

C — Correct. With neuropathy and a prior fall, the critical setup is a clear floor and a rail, bar or chair within arm's reach so the client can catch themselves.

D — Not this one. Distance leaves no way to catch a client with a fall history; the trainer stays within arm's reach.

E — Not this one. Soft mats make balance work less stable and can trip a client with reduced foot sensation; they are not the safety priority here.

A — Not this one. Grip and shoulder work have a place, but upper-body isolation misses the leg strength that decides whether someone can get out of a chair or climb stairs.

B — Correct. For an older adult whose goal is independence, lower-limb strength trained through sit-to-stand and stair patterns carries over directly to daily tasks and fall prevention.

C — Not this one. Maximal 1RM testing and 1RM-focused periodization add risk and do not match a goal of functional independence.

D — Not this one. High-rep endurance work across every muscle group is generic. It does not prioritize the specific movements daily living depends on.

A — Not this one. BMI cutoffs are the same for everyone; there is no official adjustment for training frequency. Use body-composition testing instead.

B — Correct. BMI only compares weight with height and can't tell muscle from fat, so a lean, heavily muscled lifter can land in the 'obese' band (95 ÷ 1.75² ≈ 31.0).

C — Not this one. Age is not the issue; the limitation shows up in muscular people at any age.

D — Not this one. BMI doesn't measure body composition at all, so it can't 'accurately reflect' it.

E — Not this one. BMI doesn't overestimate fat in everyone; it misclassifies people whose weight is mostly muscle.

A — Not this one. Creatine works on its own. Tying it to stimulant pre-workouts adds risk and has no evidence behind it.

B — Not this one. Creatine is one of the most researched supplements, and age-related bans for adult athletes are not part of the guidance. Dismissing it is factually wrong.

C — Not this one. 50 g/day loading and 10 g/day maintenance are well above the studied protocol and add nothing once muscle stores are saturated.

D — Not this one. The dose itself is the standard one; the trap is the word 'prescribe'. Over-the-counter status does not move individualized supplement dosing into a trainer's scope.

E — Correct. Creatine monohydrate is well supported for repeated short, explosive efforts. A trainer can share the standard protocol (≈0.3 g/kg/day load, 3–5 g/day maintenance) as education and leave an individual regimen to a dietitian.

A — Not this one. Post-workout carbohydrate helps recovery but cannot prevent glycogen running low during a 2-hour session.

B — Not this one. 15–20 g across two hours is far too little to make a difference to fuel supply.

C — Not this one. 120–150 g per hour exceeds what the gut can usually absorb and tends to cause GI distress. Even elite targets top out near 90 g/h with mixed sugars.

D — Correct. For sessions longer than about 60–90 minutes, 30–60 g of carbohydrate per hour from drinks or gels holds blood glucose up and spares muscle glycogen.

E — Not this one. A big carb dinner tops up stores, but skipping intra-session fuel for 'fat oxidation' trades away performance in a long brick.

A — Correct. 2–3 kg over 8 weeks needs roughly 300–400 kcal/day below TDEE (2,000–2,100 kcal). For an already lean athlete, a modest deficit protects muscle and training quality.

B — Not this one. 150–200 kcal/day would move the scale too slowly to reach 2–3 kg in 8 weeks.

C — Not this one. 800–1,000 kcal/day is aggressive for someone at ~18% body fat and risks muscle loss and hormonal disruption.

D — Not this one. 500–700 kcal/day is a general-population figure and would overshoot this goal while cutting into a lean athlete's recovery.

E — Not this one. Without a deficit there is no reliable fat loss, and simply adding training volume for a client training 6 days a week risks overreaching.

A — Not this one. Resistance training is recommended for stable heart disease when properly dosed; leaving it out entirely is outdated caution.

B — Not this one. Daily vigorous intervals ignore recovery and progression, and no exercise program 'reverses' coronary disease on a trainer's say-so.

C — Not this one. Minimal aerobic work drops the backbone of cardiac exercise guidance; strength training complements aerobic work, it doesn't replace it.

D — Correct. For stable, cleared coronary disease, guidelines combine about 150 min/week of moderate aerobic work with resistance training on at least 2 days.

A — Correct. A systolic drop of about 20 mmHg on standing with lightheadedness is orthostatic hypotension, common on diuretics. Slow the position changes and watch for symptoms.

B — Not this one. Telling a client when to take a prescribed drug is medication advice and outside a trainer's scope.

C — Not this one. Repeating rapid position changes provokes the drop instead of managing it; transitions should be slowed, not drilled at speed.

D — Not this one. This is a recognizable, manageable drug effect with stable seated vitals, not an emergency.

E — Not this one. Removing all floor work is unnecessary; controlled transitions solve the problem.

A — Not this one. There is no fixed 24-month rule, and skipping clearance afterwards is still wrong.

B — Not this one. Cardiac rehab and a symptom-free year are good signs, but neither is clearance for HIIT.

C — Not this one. A permanent ban is not required; with clearance, many cardiac clients progress safely.

D — Not this one. Even a cautious HIIT start needs clearance; clearance for moderate exercise does not cover high-intensity intervals.

E — Correct. Moving a post-heart-attack client to HIIT is a big jump in cardiac demand, so get the physician's written clearance for that specific progression.

A — Correct. When a client refuses EMS after fainting, record their exact words and your recommendation to get evaluated. That shows you met your duty of care and they made an informed choice.

B — Not this one. The client's own reassurance records nothing about what you advised; the refusal of EMS and your recommendation are what a claim turns on.

C — Not this one. Training history is background; it doesn't record the decision point, the client's refusal of care.

D — Not this one. Insurers expect prompt notice, but notice is not a reason to delay the incident report, and it's not the critical record here.

E — Not this one. A record of the cues given doesn't address the key risk here: a client who fainted and refused care.

A — Correct. The electron transport chain makes the large majority of the ATP from one glucose molecule by oxidative phosphorylation.

B — Not this one. Beta-oxidation breaks down fatty acids, not glucose, so it is not a stage of glucose metabolism.

C — Not this one. The Krebs cycle mainly produces NADH and FADH2 that feed the electron transport chain, but only a small amount of ATP directly.

D — Not this one. Glycolysis yields only about 2 ATP per glucose. It is fast but low-yield.

A — Not this one. Type IIx fibers are fast and powerful but fatigue quickly, the profile of sprinters, not marathoners.

B — Correct. Elite endurance runners have a high proportion of fatigue-resistant, oxidative type I fibers in their leg muscles.

C — Not this one. Type IIa fibers are the most fatigue-resistant fast fibers, but elite marathoners are dominated by type I.

D — Not this one. An even split is typical of untrained people, not elite endurance athletes.

A — Not this one. Training does not destroy more red cells than it makes; total red cell mass is rising.

B — Correct. Endurance training expands plasma volume within days, faster than red cell mass grows, so hematocrit dips even though total red cells are rising. This is sometimes called 'sports anemia'.

C — Not this one. Iron isn't diverted away from hemoglobin by training; the dip comes from dilution.

D — Not this one. Sweat losses would concentrate the blood and raise hematocrit, not lower it.

A — Correct. 1 MET is about 3.5 mL of oxygen per kg of body weight per minute, roughly resting oxygen uptake.

B — Not this one. 1.0 L/min is an absolute value, not body-weight-relative, and is well above resting uptake for most people.

C — Not this one. 35 mL/kg/min is ten times too high; it is about 10 METs.

D — Not this one. 0.35 mL/kg/min is a decimal slip, ten times too low.

A — Correct. The ACL stops the tibia from sliding forward on the femur and also helps control rotation.

B — Not this one. Gapping on the outer knee (varus stress) is resisted by the LCL.

C — Not this one. Limiting backward sliding of the tibia is the PCL's job; mixing up the cruciates is the classic trap.

D — Not this one. Gapping on the inner knee (valgus stress) is resisted by the MCL.

A — Not this one. The internal intercostals mainly help forced expiration; they pull the ribs down, not up.

B — Not this one. Rectus abdominis and obliques assist forced exhalation by compressing the abdomen.

C — Correct. In heavy breathing, the scalenes and sternocleidomastoid lift the upper ribs and sternum to help inspiration.

D — Not this one. Transversus abdominis and pelvic floor support expiration and the trunk, not inspiration.

A — Not this one. It is the reverse: muscle adapts faster, which is why connective tissue can become the weak link.

B — Not this one. Loading is what strengthens tendons and ligaments; stretching alone does not.

C — Correct. Tendons and ligaments have a limited blood supply and adapt more slowly than muscle, so load should rise gradually to let them catch up.

D — Not this one. Connective tissue keeps adapting to load throughout adult life.

A — Not this one. More acetylcholine release would keep stimulating the fiber, not relax it.

B — Not this one. Tighter myosin-actin binding means more contraction; relaxation needs the cross-bridges to detach.

C — Not this one. Calcium staying on troponin keeps binding sites exposed, which keeps the fiber contracting.

D — Correct. Relaxation requires calcium to be pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which frees troponin and lets tropomyosin cover the binding sites again.

A — Not this one. Hanging at the side, the weight sits almost directly below the shoulder, so torque is near zero.

B — Not this one. Torque changes with arm angle; a constant torque would need a cable or machine set up to produce it.

C — Not this one. At 45° the moment arm is only partway to its maximum.

D — Correct. Torque is greatest when the arm is horizontal (about 90°), because the moment arm between the shoulder and the dumbbell is longest there.

A — Correct. Inversion turns the sole of the foot inward, toward the midline. It is the usual mechanism of a lateral ankle sprain.

B — Not this one. Eversion is the opposite, turning the sole outward.

C — Not this one. Plantar flexion points the foot downward, as in a calf raise.

D — Not this one. Dorsiflexion pulls the top of the foot toward the shin in the sagittal plane.

A — Not this one. A longer resistance arm gives a mechanical advantage below 1, typical of most body levers.

B — Not this one. Favoring speed and range of motion describes levers with a mechanical advantage below 1.

C — Not this one. Needing more effort than the load also means a mechanical advantage below 1.

D — Correct. A mechanical advantage above 1 means the effort arm is longer than the resistance arm, so less effort moves the load.

A — Correct. The synovial membrane lining the joint capsule produces synovial fluid.

B — Not this one. The meniscus is a fibrocartilage shock absorber in the knee, not a source of synovial fluid.

C — Not this one. Articular cartilage gives a smooth, low-friction surface but doesn't produce the fluid.

D — Not this one. Ligaments connect bone to bone for stability; they don't secrete fluid.

A — Not this one. Creatine is not made from pyruvate; it is part of the phosphagen system.

B — Not this one. Acetyl-CoA is what pyruvate becomes once it enters the mitochondria, the aerobic route that is falling behind here.

C — Correct. When pyruvate builds up faster than the mitochondria can take it in, it is converted to lactate, which regenerates NAD+ so glycolysis can continue.

D — Not this one. Glycogen is stored carbohydrate; pyruvate isn't converted back into it in this situation.

A — Not this one. An even mix of fat and carbohydrate gives an RER of about 0.85.

B — Not this one. Fat oxidation gives an RER near 0.7.

C — Not this one. Protein contributes little during exercise and is not read from RER this way.

D — Correct. An RER near 1.0 means carbohydrate is the main fuel; values near 0.7 point to fat.

A — Correct. Arterioles have smooth-muscle walls that dilate or constrict, so they are the main control point for directing blood to working muscle.

B — Not this one. Capillaries are the exchange site, but they have no muscular wall to adjust flow.

C — Not this one. Large elastic arteries smooth out pressure pulses rather than directing flow to specific tissues.

D — Not this one. Venules collect blood after the capillaries; they don't regulate flow into the muscle.

A — Not this one. Liver toxicity at typical doses is the concern linked to kava, not St. John's wort.

B — Not this one. Bone loss is not a recognized effect of St. John's wort.

C — Correct. St. John's wort is best known for drug interactions. It affects how many drugs are metabolized and can interact dangerously with antidepressants, so the client should check with a physician.

D — Not this one. Heart attack, stroke and an FDA ban describe ephedra, not St. John's wort.

A — Not this one. Cycling is a habit, not a safety requirement shown in research.

B — Correct. At standard doses (3–5 g/day), research shows no kidney harm in healthy people. Clients with existing kidney disease should ask their physician.

C — Not this one. Months of normal dosing have not been shown to damage healthy kidneys.

D — Not this one. Restricting water is never a safety measure, and creatine doesn't require it.

A — Not this one. 'Elevated' means 120–129 with diastolic under 80; this reading is far higher.

B — Not this one. Stage 1 is 130–139 or 80–89; 168/94 is well above it, and proceeding skips the referral.

C — Not this one. 'Prehypertension' is the outdated JNC-7 label and does not fit 168/94 anyway.

D — Not this one. The classification is right, but starting a program before medical evaluation is not.

E — Correct. 168/94 untreated is stage 2 hypertension under current ACC/AHA categories (≥140 systolic or ≥90 diastolic), so refer before exercise testing.

A — Correct. Measuring in 3 cm soles inflated the baseline height, which made the first BMI look lower than it was. The apparent rise in BMI at follow-up is a measurement artifact.

B — Not this one. Diurnal variation is usually about 1–2 cm and wouldn't match the exact 3 cm shoe sole.

C — Not this one. Nothing in the stem suggests the stadiometer drifted; the baseline broke protocol, not the follow-up.

D — Not this one. A real 3 cm height loss in two months isn't plausible; the shoes explain the gap.

E — Not this one. This gets the direction wrong: shoes add height, they don't reduce it.

A — Not this one. Swapping skinfold sites leaves the 1RM, jump and maximal treadmill test in place, which is the real problem.

B — Not this one. Postponing everything is unnecessary; safe submaximal assessments are fine.

C — Not this one. A waiver doesn't make maximal testing appropriate in pregnancy.

D — Not this one. Clearance to exercise doesn't mean clearance for maximal or impact testing during pregnancy.

E — Correct. With clearance at 16 weeks, drop the maximal tests (1RM, max treadmill test, jump) and use submaximal cardio measures and circumferences instead of skinfolds.

A — Not this one. A form and a symptom-free day don't override a recent hospitalization for chest pain.

B — Correct. A hospitalization for unexplained chest pain three weeks ago with no clearance means no testing of any kind until a physician clears the client.

C — Not this one. Strength testing raises blood pressure too; skipping cardio tests does not remove the risk.

D — Not this one. Bodyweight exercise is still exercise before clearance.

E — Not this one. A step test is still cardiovascular stress for someone with unexplained chest pain.

A — Not this one. She is already confident at this level, so holding back only delays her progress.

B — Correct. Progress one variable at a time. Narrow the base of support while gradually reducing hand support.

C — Not this one. Hand weights add load but don't challenge balance; the base and support are the levers to change.

D — Not this one. Jumping to single-leg and eyes-closed work changes two big variables at once for an 80-year-old.

A — Not this one. 92 mg/dL may be a normal fasting value, but on insulin with an hour of exercise ahead it is a hypoglycemia risk.

B — Correct. For an insulin user, a reading under 100 mg/dL before a 60-minute session calls for 15–30 g of fast carbohydrate and a recheck before starting.

C — Not this one. Protein and fat slow absorption, and five minutes is too short; fast carbohydrate is the standard.

D — Not this one. Lowering intensity without raising glucose first still risks a low during the session.

E — Not this one. Ketones matter when glucose is high (above 250 mg/dL), not at 92.

A — Not this one. Reaching high-intensity sets within two weeks is too fast for a newly added mode.

B — Correct. Add resistance training two days a week at moderate intensity, use RPE because metoprolol blunts heart rate, and increase load over several weeks.

C — Not this one. An extra eight-week delay has no basis; resistance training helps hypertensive clients.

D — Not this one. HRR targets are unreliable on a beta-blocker, and 70–85% is vigorous.

E — Not this one. Daily sessions with minimal rest raise blood pressure and leave no recovery; HR blunting isn't something to 'compensate' for.

A — Correct. Worsening, unexplained muscle pain and weakness on a statin can be drug-induced myopathy, sometimes serious. Refer before continuing training.

B — Not this one. Waiting for a routine appointment delays evaluation of a symptom that is getting worse.

C — Not this one. Cutting volume and reassessing is a trainer's guess at a medical problem.

D — Not this one. Fluids and electrolytes don't treat suspected statin myopathy, and normal training would make it worse.

E — Not this one. Two more weeks of training ignores a progressive symptom that already affects daily life.

A — Not this one. About 3 reps matches roughly 90–93% of 1RM, a heavy strength load.

B — Not this one. About 6 reps matches roughly 85% of 1RM, the top of the strength range.

C — Not this one. About 20 reps fits loads near 60% or below, the muscular endurance range.

D — Correct. About 75% of 1RM allows roughly 10 reps for most clients, the middle of the hypertrophy zone (about 67–85%, 6–12 reps).

A — Not this one. Looking up tips the head and trunk back, encouraging the arch.

B — Correct. Bracing the abs and squeezing the glutes locks the ribs and pelvis so the press comes from the shoulders, not a lumbar arch.

C — Not this one. Pushing through the toes shifts weight forward and doesn't address trunk control.

D — Not this one. Pressing out in front lengthens the lever and makes the lean-back worse; the bar travels close to the face and finishes overhead.

A — Correct. When the arches collapse (pronation), the tibia rotates inward and the knee tends toward valgus with internal rotation.

B — Not this one. Varus with external rotation goes with a high, supinated foot, the opposite pattern.

C — Not this one. Collapsed arches usually pull the knee out of neutral alignment.

D — Not this one. Hyperextension is a sagittal-plane knee fault and isn't linked to flat feet.

A — Not this one. Supervised resistance training is safe for youth; stopping until growth ends isn't needed.

B — Correct. During a growth spurt, bones outgrow muscles and coordination dips, so reduce loads for a while and focus on technique and mobility.

C — Not this one. Ballistic stretching is not recommended for general populations and doesn't replace strength work.

D — Not this one. Hormones are rising, but coordination is falling; adding load now raises injury risk.

A — Not this one. Feedback before the client has tried anything has nothing to correct.

B — Not this one. Having the client perform first, with no explanation or demonstration, invites faulty reps.

C — Correct. Explain, demonstrate, let the client try, then give feedback. This order sets up understanding before the first rep.

D — Not this one. Showing the demonstration last means the client attempts the movement without having seen it.

A — Not this one. 'Squeeze your glutes' focuses on a muscle, so it is internal.

B — Not this one. Cueing the arm swing from the shoulders also directs attention to the body.

C — Not this one. Cueing the hip and knee joints is an internal focus on body parts.

D — Correct. 'reach for the target' points attention outside the body, at the effect of the movement. External cues tend to improve jump performance and learning.

A — Correct. With mild cognitive impairment, simple one-step instructions and frequent, consistent cues help the client follow along safely.

B — Not this one. Complex choreography adds exactly the multi-step load that causes confusion.

C — Not this one. A detailed written plan for home depends on the multi-step processing the client struggles with.

D — Not this one. Cutting out strength and balance work denies the client important training; simplify instead of restricting.

A — Not this one. Moving fast adds force and fall risk; it doesn't make flexion safe.

B — Not this one. Rounding the back with straight legs is loaded spinal flexion, the pattern to avoid.

C — Not this one. Twisting while reaching down adds spinal rotation under load, also risky with osteoporosis.

D — Correct. A hip hinge with a neutral spine and bent knees avoids the loaded spinal flexion that raises vertebral fracture risk in osteoporosis.

A — Correct. The bent-over row uses a hip hinge with the torso leaning forward and the spine neutral, so the upper back can pull.

B — Not this one. A rounded upper back loads the spine poorly and is a common fault.

C — Not this one. Standing upright turns the row into a shrug and changes the muscles worked.

D — Not this one. Arching the lower back hard overloads the lumbar spine; neutral is the target.

A — Correct. Tucking the pelvis into a posterior tilt and squeezing the rear glute lengthens the hip flexors and stops the lower back from arching.

B — Not this one. Turning the foot and sinking further doesn't fix the arch that is canceling the stretch.

C — Not this one. Arching the back more lets the hip flexors stay short, which is why the client feels little stretch.

D — Not this one. Leaning far forward shifts the stretch away from the hip flexors.

A — Correct. Land softly with hips back and knees bent so the legs absorb the force; for box jumps the point is a quiet landing on top.

B — Not this one. An instant rebound turns box jumps into depth-jump work, which is not where beginners start.

C — Not this one. Heel-first landings bypass the forefoot and ankle shock absorption.

D — Not this one. Straight-leg landings send impact into the knees and spine.

A — Correct. Tucking the elbows to about 45° from the torso reduces strain on the front of the shoulder.

B — Not this one. Dropping the hips is a core fault and does nothing for shoulder strain.

C — Not this one. Flaring past 90° increases the shoulder stress that is causing the pain.

D — Not this one. Hands level with the face puts the shoulder in a more stressful position; hands belong under or slightly outside the shoulders.

A — Correct. Spot dumbbell presses at or near the wrists, where you can control the dumbbell directly.

B — Not this one. Spotting under the elbows lets the dumbbells fall inward or onto the face, a known spotting error.

C — Not this one. Gripping the ends of the dumbbells interferes with the client's grip and gives poor control.

D — Not this one. The upper arms are even further from the load than the elbows.

A — Not this one. The glutes and lumbar curve sit away from a straight dowel; the third point is the sacrum.

B — Correct. Head, upper back (between the shoulder blades) and sacrum stay on the dowel throughout a hinge, which keeps the spine neutral.

C — Not this one. The hamstrings aren't checked with the dowel; the three contact points are along the spine.

D — Not this one. The heels aren't on the spine, so this option doesn't fit the drill.

A — Correct. Describing how the movement was performed (hips rising faster than shoulders) is knowledge of performance.

B — Not this one. Knowledge of results describes the outcome, such as reps completed or jump height, not the technique.

C — Not this one. Positive reinforcement praises the client; this statement corrects technique.

D — Not this one. Intrinsic feedback comes from the client's own senses, not from the trainer.

A — Not this one. A spotter improvising mid-set is how hand-offs and assists go wrong.

B — Correct. Before a heavy set, agree on the target reps and how and when the spotter will help, including the lift-off.

C — Not this one. Knowing the load matters, but without a plan for help the spot can go wrong.

D — Not this one. A year-old 1RM says little about today's set; the plan is what matters.

A — Not this one. Asking them to call their physician is right, but planning a session in three days assumes clearance will come.

B — Correct. If a client with exercise-related chest discomfort refuses evaluation, decline to train until they have clearance and document the refusal and your decision.

C — Not this one. Repeating concerns and training anyway still exposes the client to cardiac risk.

D — Not this one. A waiver can't make it safe to keep training through cardiac symptoms, and it doesn't cover a trainer who knowingly ignores a red flag.

E — Not this one. Avoiding exercises that trigger symptoms means programming around possible heart disease without a diagnosis.

A — Correct. For a client who collapsed and is unresponsive, call emergency services to the address on file first, then reach the emergency contact, and write up the timeline once the emergency is handled.

B — Not this one. An emergency contact may be far away or unreachable; EMS has to be called first.

C — Not this one. Calling out over audio and following up by email treats a collapse as a minor issue.

D — Not this one. Documentation comes after the response; writing notes first wastes critical minutes.

E — Not this one. Five minutes of phone calls before calling EMS is a dangerous delay for an unresponsive person.

A — Correct. A mesocycle is a block of several weeks to a few months with one main focus, such as a 4-week hypertrophy phase.

B — Not this one. A microcycle is the short unit, usually about one week of sessions.

C — Not this one. The macrocycle is the whole plan, often a training year, which the mesocycles fit inside.

D — Not this one. A transition period is active rest after a season or cycle, not a block built around a training goal.

A — Not this one. Hip bridges strengthen the glutes, but lying on the back with no step or load in hand does not match the demand.

B — Not this one. Seated leg extensions train one joint without bodyweight, balance or carrying, which is far from climbing stairs.

C — Correct. SAID (specific adaptation to imposed demands): loaded step-ups match climbing stairs while carrying weight, the exact task the client faces.

D — Not this one. Lying leg curls isolate the hamstrings in a position that has nothing in common with the task.

A — Not this one. Stopping all activity is complete rest, not a deload. A deload keeps training at a lower dose.

B — Not this one. A week of maximal testing adds stress rather than relieving it.

C — Correct. A deload is a planned, temporary cut in volume and/or intensity that lets the client recover and absorb training while staying active.

D — Not this one. A planned short increase in volume is functional overreaching, the hard phase a deload usually follows.

A — Correct. Power lifts such as the hang power clean go first, because speed and technique break down quickly with fatigue.

B — Not this one. The back squat is a strength lift and follows the power work in the session order.

C — Not this one. Core work such as the plank comes late. Fatiguing the trunk first undermines bracing on the heavier lifts.

D — Not this one. Lunges are an assistance lift; done first, they would tire the legs before the power and strength work.

A — Not this one. Intensity is load relative to 1RM, and the load did not change.

B — Not this one. Frequency is how often the exercise or muscle is trained each week, not the sets within one session.

C — Correct. Adding a set at the same load and rest raises volume, the total work done (sets × reps, or sets × reps × load).

D — Not this one. The rest interval was explicitly kept the same.

A — Not this one. Hydration is one of the biggest sources of BIA error, which is why pre-test instructions control fluids, exercise and alcohol.

B — Correct. With less body water, resistance to the current rises and the device reads more of the body as fat, so body fat is overestimated.

C — Not this one. BIA estimates fat and lean mass from the same reading, so a hydration error shifts both.

D — Not this one. Underestimation is what overhydration tends to cause, the opposite direction.

A — Not this one. This applies the men's cutoff to both; at 36 in the woman is above the 35-in female threshold.

B — Not this one. Only the woman exceeds her sex-specific cutoff; the man's 38 in is below 40.

C — Correct. The high-risk cutoffs are above 40 in (102 cm) for men and above 35 in (88 cm) for women, so the woman at 36 in is over hers and the man at 38 in is under his.

D — Not this one. This applies the women's cutoff (35 in) to the man; his threshold is 40 in.